These were spoken by our Lord Jesus when he was on the cross. Many people explain this saying that the Father hid his face from the Son, because He cannot look at sin. But does the scripture really mean that?
The perfect interpretation would be to jump to the main scripture itself: Psalm 22.
The complete Psalm 22 prophesizes about Christ’s suffering on the cross. Every verse in it was fulfilled and so was verse 24: “neither hath he hid his face from him; but when he cried unto him, he heard.”
Any assumption that the Spirit of God left Jesus before his crucifixion or before his death is wrong.
Heb 9:14 How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God?
This clearly explains that the Spirit of God left Jesus only at his death. Also, Jesus prophesized about his death saying “Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his own, and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me.”
Sin separates man from God; Not God from man. When man sinned, it was God who came looking for Adam, and it was Adam who tried to hide. And while we were still sinners God came looking for us in the flesh.
Also, it must be understood that only the human flesh of Jesus died, not the Spirit of God dwelling in Him.
Moreover, Jesus insists that He gave His life out of His own will.
John 10:18 No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.
Therefore, it is proved that the exclamation “My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?” is merely an expression of suffering. It never means that the Spirit of God left Jesus before His death.
1 John 3:16 Hereby perceive we the love of God, because he laid down his life for us:
This once and again proves that Jesus was God when he offered His life.
Did Jesus become “sin” or “sinner”?
There are many prominent preachers out there who teach that Jesus became a “sinner” on the cross. They base their argument on 2 Cor 5:21
“For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him”.
The verse says that Jesus was made to be sin for us. But what does it mean in the original context? Let’s go to the original Greek translation:
The Greek word used here for sin is “hamartia”, with Strong’s concordance number g266.
Now if we refer to g266 in the Concordance, we find the following information:
Now, if we refer to the Septuagint (Old testament in Greek), we find that the word “hamartia” is used interchangeably to mean both “sin” and “sin offering”.
Consider the examples in Lev 4:20, 21 (on the image to the right) and Isa 53: 10 (below).
In addition to this, the Bible declares in so many other places that Jesus Christ remained sinless till the last moment:
Heb 9:14 How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God?
1 Pet 1:18 Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, as silver and gold, from your vain conversation received by tradition from your fathers; 19 But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:
Heb 4:15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
Luke 23:47 Now when the centurion saw what was done, he glorified God, saying, Certainly this was a righteous man.
1 John 3:5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
Pay attention that John says “is no sin”, NOT “was no sin”.
1 Pet 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
ஏனெனில், கிறிஸ்துவும் நம்மைத் தேவனிடத்தில் சேர்க்கும்படி அநீதியுள்ளவர்களுக்குப் பதிலாக நீதியுள்ளவராய்ப் பாவங்களினிமித்தம் ஒருதரம் பாடுபட்டார்; அவர் மாம்சத்திலே கொலையுண்டு, ஆவியிலே உயிர்ப்பிக்கப்பட்டார்.
1 Pet 2:22 Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:
Luke 24:44 portrays the scene of Jesus appearing to the disciples after His resurrection:
And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.
The Lord said that everything written about Him in the scriptures, including Moses, the prophets and the Psalms were fulfilled. So then, what is written about Jesus?
Moses: Exo 12:5 Your lamb shall be without blemish, a male of the first year: ye shall take it out from the sheep, or from the goats:
Prophets: Isa 53:5 But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.
(Note here it says that He suffered on our behalf. The punishment of our peace was upon Him)
Isa 53: 10 Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand. (Here, the word “hamartia” is again used to denote “sin offering”.)
Isa 53:12 “… and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.” (Here it says that He was “numbered” with the transgressors/ sinners. But He did not actually become one).
Psalms: Ps 22:24 For he hath not despised nor abhorred the affliction of the afflicted; neither hath he hid his face from him; but when he cried unto him, he heard.
So, we can conclude that the context of the word “made sin” in 2 Cor 5:21 only means that Jesus was made a “sin offering”, and not a “sinner”.